FREE ESSAY ON "EXPLAIN WHY ARISTOTLE BELIEVES THAT MORALITY LEADS TO HAPPINESS"

"EXPLAIN WHY ARISTOTLE BELIEVES THAT MORALITY LEADS TO HAPPINESS"

What does happiness consist of? Could it be the same for all men/women, or do different
men/women seek different things in the name of happiness? Can happiness be achieved on
earth, or only thereafter? There seems to be no question that men/women want happiness. 
Aristotle takes the word "happiness" and gives it the technical significance of ultimate
good, "The chief good," he writes, "is evidently something final...Now we call that which
is in itself worthy of pursuit more final than that which is worthy of pursuit for the
sake of something else, and that which is never desirable for the sake of something else
more final than the things that are desirable both in themselves and for the sake of that
other thing. Therefore, we call final without qualification that which is always
desirable in itself and never for the sake of something else. Such a thing happiness,
above all else, is held to be; for this we choose always for itself and never for the
sake of something else."
Happiness can also be expressed in terms of its completeness or sufficiency. It would be
true that happiness is desired for its own sake and everything else for the sake of
happiness, if the happy man/woman wanted something more. The most obvious mark of the
happy man/woman according to Aristotle is that he/she wants for nothing. The happy life
leaves nothing to be desired. So happiness is not a particular good itself, but the sum
of good things. "If happiness were to be counted as one good among others," Aristotle
says, "it would clearly be made more desirable by the addition of even the least of
goods." But then there would be something left for the happy man/woman to desire, and
happiness would not be "something final and self-sufficient and the end of action."